Busted Halo
Loading

googling god
The Busted Halo Question Box
Ask our spiritual experts virtually anything!
This is the place where you can ask all of those burning questions that you wouldn't dare ask in person. We will post questions here (using your byline only with permission); we guarantee an answer to everyone.

Have your own question? Then pitch it to us!

Ginny Kubitz Moyer
Mary questions
Julianne Wallace
Mass and Catholic ritual questions
Rev. Leo A. Walsh, S.T.D.
Ecumenical questions
Neela Kale
Ethics and cultural innovation questions
Mike Hayes
General questions
Ann Naffziger, M.A., M.Div.
Scripture questions
  • (12)
  • Follow us:
Our readers asked:

Where in the Bible does it say that Mary, mother of Jesus, is sinless? And if it is not in the Bible, why does the Catholic Church act like she is?

Fr. Joe Answers:

Catholics differ from some Christian Churches which accept the Scripture as the only source of God’s revelation. Catholics have a strong belief in the truth of Scripture, but we also believe in tradition as a way in which God continues to reveal truth to us. Tradition can include beliefs, customs, prayers, and worship, the teaching of popes, bishops, theologians and Church councils. It’s our process of continually reflecting on the way in which the Word of God encounters our own experience as a community of faith.

Catholic understanding is that tradition includes the Scripture, and began before the gospels and letters were written. We do believe that Scripture is a unique revelation from God and that the truths of tradition must always be tested and evaluated against the truths revealed in Scripture. They should not contradict Scripture. They should find their roots in Scripture.

The belief that Mary lived without sin from the moment of her conception springs from Church tradition. It evolved over a period of time, and was not formally defined as a teaching of the Church until 1854. It is not found explicitly in Scripture, but seems for Catholics to flow naturally from the testimony of Scripture that Mary was “full of grace” (Luke 1:28) and “blessed” (Luke 1:42).

In Catholic understanding the belief in Mary’s “immaculate conception” does not say so much about Mary as it is about Christ’s saving power. We believe that God created the human person to be in God’s own image. Grace is more original than sin. Our natural state was to be “full of grace.” Sin is our universal experience but it’s not what God intended for us in the past nor wants for us in the future. We are saved from sin through Christ. Mary’s being conceived without sin takes place in the context of the entire saving act of Christ. In being “full of grace” she is a model of what we human beings were intended to be and who we are redeemed to be through God’s saving power. She is the first sign of God’s victory over sin in Christ.

You also ask: “Why are Catholics who are baptized when they were infants, choose to lead unholy, even atheistic lives, die and then the priest at the funeral says they are going to heaven because they were baptized?”

The bishop of Rome, as head of the Catholic Church, sometimes declares certain people to be “saints” because they lived such exemplary and holy lives that we can believe with confidence that they are “with God in heaven.” Such a declaration only comes after a long investigation into the facts of that person’s life. The Catholic Church has never declared any deceased person to be “in hell.” Aside from this we don’t know and can’t presume the eternal state of any person who has died, although we believe that God desires all people to be with him in death as well as in life. Baptism does not automatically ensure that a person will go to heaven when he or she dies. We must try to live out our Baptism with lives of faith, hope and love.

The Catholic Church asks its members to pray for those who have died BECAUSE we know that we are all sinners, and even when we have tried to live a good life we can die short of the purity of heart that makes eternal life “with God” a reality. Yet we believe that God’s mercy is not thwarted by death and that God has the power to purify and transform the soul even after death so that it is fully open to participating in eternal life. Purgatory is not a place of “sentences”, like a prison, because it exists in eternity which is timeless.

We should certainly pray for the living as well, that they may accept God’s grace into their lives.

  • (12)
  • Follow us:
The Author : Fr. Joe
Fr. Joe Scott, CSP, has been a campus minister, pastor and editor as a Paulist priest.
See more articles by (75).
12 comments about “Where in the Bible does it say that Mary, mother of Jesus, is sinless? And if it is not in the Bible, why does the Catholic Church act like she is?”
Mike in PA -- November 17th, 2008 at 6:59 pm

Another point to make regarding the theological language related to this issue, e.g. “Immaculate Conception”, is that the mammalian ovum was not discovered until 1827 by Baer. It seems logical that the title “Immaculate Conception” would not be found in scripture since the biological concept surrounding it was foreign. Another tip of the hat to science for giving us a fuller vocabulary to better articulate the tenets of faith.

Mike Hayes -- December 30th, 2009 at 6:26 pm

Good point, Mike in PA. Thanks for sharing that.

Christy -- February 4th, 2010 at 10:46 am

So, my question is this: If Mary was conceived without sin on her soul, then wasn’t she predestined to carry the Christ child? So doesn’t that mean that it wasn’t really her choice? And therefore, if it wasn’t really her choice to carry Jesus in her womb, what makes her “decision” to say yes to God (via the angel Gabriel I believe) so darn special?

I just find this doctrine very confusing & seems counter to our view of God giving us all free will. I would love for someone to shed some light on this.

mike -- February 4th, 2010 at 11:10 am

Christy, thanks for the great question. We always have the ability as humans, Mary included to go against God’s wish for us. Even though Mary was not caught up in sin by birth, that doesn’t eliminate her from committing sin, first of all, but also doesn’t mean that she can’t make a decision counter to God’s wishes.
That’s why her decision, made freely, is as you say, “so darn important.”

Jim -- February 14th, 2010 at 6:40 am

When discussing the Immaculate Conception, an implicit reference may be found in the angel‚Äôs greeting to Mary. The angel Gabriel said, “Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with you” (Luke 1:28). The phrase “full of grace” is a translation of the Greek word kecharitomene. It therefore expresses a characteristic quality of Mary.

The traditional translation, “full of grace,” is better than the one found in many recent versions of the New Testament, which give something along the lines of “highly favored daughter.” Mary was indeed a highly favored daughter of God, but the Greek implies more than that (and it never mentions the word for “daughter”). The grace given to Mary is at once permanent and of a unique kind. Kecharitomene is a perfect passive participle of charitoo, meaning “to fill or endow with grace.” Since this term is in the perfect tense, it indicates that Mary was graced in the past but with continuing effects in the present. So, the grace Mary enjoyed was not a result of the angel‚Äôs visit. In fact, Catholics hold, it extended over the whole of her life, from conception onward. She was in a state of sanctifying grace from the first moment of her existence.

Julia -- February 18th, 2010 at 2:40 pm

One friend of mine pointed out that “Eve was full of grace too” – which makes some sense of Mary’s decision and how she could have responded differently.

I’ve been drawn toward the Catholic Church and don’t see Mary as a make-or-break issue, but I do have one niggling immaculate conception question: what does it say about the divinity of Jesus if he is not the only person to have lived a sinless life?

Actually, one more question. I’ve seen a beautiful icon of Jesus’ baptism that shows him submerged in dark water, surrounded by demon-like fish, symbolizing his incarnation as a descent among human sinfulness. It made me wonder, if he could descend so completely into the depths of our sin and hell, could he not have suffered to be born of an ordinary sin-prone person?

I want to emphasize that these questions are not meant to be antagonistic, but they continue to haunt my mind amid my Catholic sympathies.

Alcides Rios -- March 5th, 2010 at 10:12 am

it says nothing against his divinity but on the contrary shows that when one allows his/herself to be lead by the Spirit and allow CHrist to live and reign in his/her body and soul, that person can live that holy saintly life. Mary is who we can become if we allow ourselves to be the humble handmaid of the Lord. And for with Christ nothing is impossible.

Proverbslady -- April 2nd, 2011 at 9:41 pm

Whatever men are trying to prove theres only one statement that i believe and is 100% sure in the bible. Jesus said”No one comes to the father except through me”. Thanks.

Kevin -- December 8th, 2011 at 10:06 pm

Romans 3:23 clearly states that “all have sinned and fallen short of the glory of God.” Scripture does not leave room for any exceptions. Jesus is the way. Thank you Proverbslady!

Ann -- December 8th, 2011 at 11:00 pm

And our Blessed Mother leads us to Him!

Kathy -- December 9th, 2011 at 7:22 am

Proverbslady: Mary leads us to her son ….just like someone can lead another to a closer relationship with Jesus through praying for them or teaching them.

Michael -- December 9th, 2011 at 12:31 pm

Kevin – does an infant sin? Does a severely retarded person sin? Did Jesus sin? Clearly there are exceptions.

post a comment
Your Privacy Matters
Please note that the editorial staff reserves the right to not post comments it deems to be inappropriate and/or malicious in nature, as well as edit comments for length, clarity and fairness.

powered by the Paulists